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Matthew 8:8, 21 "Sir"
or "Lord"?
This question asks why
we translated the Greek word
κύριος
used in Matthew 8:8 and 21 as "Sir" in Matthew 8:8 but as "Lord" in Matthew
8:21.
Why is
the same Greek word being translated as both 'Sir' and 'Lord' in these two
different verses?
Because the context of
the usage of
κύριος
is different in each verse. The ISV v1.4.6
of Matthew 8:8 reads:
8 The centurion replied, Sir,[1] I am not worthy to have you come
under my roof. ...
[1] 8:8 Or Lord
and the ISV v1.4.6 of
Matthew 8:21 reads:
21 Then another of his disciples said to him, Lord,[1] first let me go and
bury my father.
[1] 8:21 Or Sir
Why not
translate the word
κύριος
the same in each place?
Because doing so would make the ISV an inferior rendering of the Greek
contextual usage of
κύριος.
Is it
because there two different speakers, one was a centurion and the other one
was a disciple?
Yes. You figured it out... Do take a look at
the footnotes in verses 8 and 21. Each acknowledges an opposite possibility.
We've done this because the text does not say in verse 8 that the centurion
was a disciple, so we've rendered the word
κύριος
as "Sir" in verse 8. The text does say the person in verse 21 was a
disciple, so we've rendered the word
κύριος
as "Lord" in verse 21.
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