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THE CATACOMBS


You are here: Home > Catacombs > Articles

Genesis 1:29-30 — Were the pre-fall animals "wild"?

A reader asked us about Genesis 1:29-30, the text of which reads in the ISV:

29God also told them, “Look! I have given you every seed-bearing plant that grows throughout the earth, along with every tree that grows seed-bearing fruit. They will produce your food. 30I have given all green plants as food for every wild animal of the earth, every bird that flies, and to every living thing that crawls on the earth.” And so it was.

According to the footnote in verse 30, 'animal of the earth' was translated to 'wild animal'. Does this mean the animals were already wild before Adam and Eve sinned?

The answer to this question depends on how you define the term "wild". See our well known policy about rendering biblical language ambiguities as ambiguities in English. Two observations about this are relevant here.

  • First, the events of Genesis 1 are "observer true". They're written from the standpoint of somebody standing on the earth, probably in the vicinity of the animal preserve called "Gan Eden".
     

  • Second, the events of Genesis 1 are described by a post-fall author describing pre-fall events. The "animals of the earth" in Genesis are rendered "wild animals" as opposed to "domesticated animals", not "wild" as opposed to "vegetarian."

The text is talking about "non-domesticated" animals versus those animals that would become domesticated after the fall. We use the term "wild animals" (sometimes the Heb. calls them "beasts of the field") in contrast to what would later become domesticated animals, not in contrast to plant eating animals like elephants, deer, antelopes, rabbits, and the like. We think you've decided a priori that the ISV is referring to animals that ate other animals merely because we used the term "wild" to describe them. We're talking about "wild" animals in contrast to animals that would later be described as being "domesticated."

Perhaps an analogy about "observer true" phenomena might be helpful, here, too. I once knew a man who used to tell me, "I knew President Bush when he served in World War II." Do you really think for a minute that the guy was claiming that GWBush was serving as President of the USA in 1944 because he said he knew President Bush in World War II? Of course not. He meant that the person who would go on to become president was an acquaintance of him back then. When he talked to me, he assumed I wasn't so naive as to think that he was claiming that Mr. Bush was President way back then. It's the same way with respect to the animals. The account in Genesis was written after the fall, describing events that went on during that time. The writer is describing animals that, at the time of their creation, were neither "wild" (as opposed to "domesticated") or "domesticated" (as opposed to "wild"). These technical distinctions would arise later, as language evolved to describe the nature and relationship of these animals to mankind.

There is no failure in our translation to call these animals "wild," as opposed to "domesticated" animals, since, strictly speaking, there were no "wild" or "domesticated" animals on the earth at the first. That distinction is man-centered, and didn't become relevant until after the rise of agriculture and the use of beasts of burden.

Please use the literal because 'wild animal' could mean some animals were already predators before the fall. According to verse 30, they were vegetarian.

The "literal"? But we are translating literally, as you'll see below. You seem to have missed the point of verse 30, which was written in contrast to verse 29. There is no evidence, strictly speaking, that the Genesis 1:29-30 record requires the animals in verse 30 be vegetarian and only vegetarian. The text in those two verses is contrasting man versus the animals as to their food source, not as to their nature. The man was not given plants to eat. The animals were. The text says in verse 29 that the man was given the plants from which he was to harvest their seed, and eat the seed, not the plants.

Animals were to eat the plants, too. So the text isn't claiming that the animals were necessarily vegetarians, only that when they ate plants, they ate from the whole plant, as opposed to the man, who was to eat the seeds that were produced (the Hebrew verb is quite explicit about this) by the plants.

It would be helpful to think like a rabbi here: just because the text focuses on one reality doesn't mean that there might be another reality present, but not relevant to the subject of the moment. You see that pattern arising in the Gospels, where one synoptic writer talks about one demon-possessed man at Gadara, and another writer talks about two.

The rabbis would say if there were two men there, that means that there was one there if all you wanted to do was talk about one of them. You could ignore the other guy because he's not relevant to the story. Apply that process to Genesis 1 and you'll see that saying the animals ate plants doesn't necessarily mean that was all that some of them ate. Predatory animals aren't precluded by that way of thinking, and that's just how Hebrew writers thought of things back then.

An example of this is the oft-cited rationale as to why animals "must have been" 100% vegetarian before the fall. The rationale for this is that the book of Romans says that death came by the sin of man, therefore, goes the logic, there was no animal death before the fall. But Romans is talking about human death, not animal death, and there's no failure of Scripture to suggest that animal death didn't occur before the fall. Have you ever wondered how it could be that Adam and Eve would understand what the word "death" meant at all when they were told in Genesis 2:17 that they would "die during the day that you eat from" the tree, if some form of death had not been observable to them so they could understand what God had meant by the warning? If language means anything at all (and it does), the text of Genesis 2:17 requires at least some form of death to have been present before the fall, for the warning of Genesis 2:17 to have had any existential meaning at all to Adam and Eve.

All told, the ISV COT has a very high respect for the historicity of the events described throughout Scripture, from the first verse of Genesis to the last one of the Book of the Revelation. That's why we think there had to have been animal death visible to pre-fall Adam and Eve in order for them to understand the warning of Genesis 2:17. God would have been telling them, "what you see happening to the animals will happen to you on the day that you eat from the tree."

But having said that, we're reluctant to add things to the text to make the translation explain things that aren't strictly speaking, in the original language. That would be a failure of translational integrity. We'll leave it to commentaries and Bible teachers to explain the subtlety. And we'll continue to use "wild" in the text. We'll add a comment, though, that the word contrasts these animals from what would later become "domesticated" animals that today we would call "beasts of burden".