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On Translating "Authority" or "Power"
I
came across your use of the word "Authority" in John 1:12, and became
curious as to that translation. The full thought, as you relay it is:
"However, to all who received him, to those believing in his name, he gave
authority to become God's children, who were born, not merely in a physical
sense, or from a fleshly impulse, or from man's desire, but of God."
It
is clear by looking at the entire thought that what is meant is that those
who fulfilled the requirements (receive, believe) were declared, or made
into children of God by God's own power. This is consistent with all other
credible interpretations of the verse that I have seen, and fits with my
understanding of scripture. Also, all manuscript evidence is consistent on
the original form of this verse.
As
you probably are aware, the word translated "authority" here is usually best
translated by that very word. The connotation is of one having "decision
control" over a power. It is not that one has the power himself, but only
active control over the exercise of the power (see Centurion, Apostles
throwing out demons, Jesus being asked by which authority he speaks, etc.).
But in this case, it is clear that the one being described does not have
active power over anything, but only passive ability or station; verse 13 is
dedicated to ensuring that the reader does not make the mistake of believing
that those described have active power over their state.
Although there is a precedent for the use of "authority," it is not
traditionally used even in literal translations. The MLB uses this word, but
other major translations use either "power" or "right"; "power" may be just
as confusing to a modern American ear as "Authority," and "right" has
certain strong American connotations as well.
The Phrase "gave authority to become" can be interpreted by my American ear
in several possible ways:
1.
Granted the decision-making power to.
a. .turn oneself into. This indicates that the decision is man's to make,
and the power is his as well. This also hints that once the criteria for
becoming children of God have been met, there is still another decision to
be made, wherein a person may decide to turn away from God before becoming
his child. This is a three-step process that I've never seen described by
even the most liberal scholar. It is clear from verse 13 that this is not
the intention of the phrase.
b.
.have oneself turned into. Again, this indicates that the decision is man's
to make, but now the power is God's. The problem with this interpretation is
the same as in 1a, namely that a transformation may be halted at this point
while the man makes a secondary informed decision. It is clear from verse 13
that this is not the intention of the phrase.
2.
Declared to have met the requirements to.
a. .turn oneself into. Here we have an initial decision being made by God,
followed by a secondary decision made by man to exercise his own power. This
is disallowed by verse 13.
b.
.have oneself turned into. A slight twist on 2a; the initial decision is
God's, the secondary decision is man's, but the power being exercised is
God's. This is also disallowed by verse 13.
c.
.be turned into. Now we have the decision being God's, and the power being
God's. This falls in line with verse 13, and is probably a good English
thought translation.
3.
Recognized as having been allowed to.
a. .turn oneself into. This is the same as 2a, in that God makes the
initial decision (recognition), followed by man making a secondary decision
to exercise his own power. This is disallowed by verse 13.
b.
.have oneself turned into. This is the same as 2b. God makes the initial
decision; man makes a secondary decision to exercise God's power. This is
disallowed by verse 13.
c.
.be turned into. This is similar to as 2c. God makes a decision
(recognition), and decides to use his own power. The only difference is that
in 2c, there have been some requirements met; this is a slight distinction,
but probably important.
The
phrase needs to be worded such that 2c or 3c is denoted. The sense should
be:
"However, to all who received him, to those believing in his name, he gave
the privilege of being made into God's children, who were born, not merely
in a physical sense, or from a fleshly impulse, or from man's desire, but of
God."
This
solves the question of who is doing the "becoming." Even the Greek syntax
leaves open the question of whether a person does the "becoming" to himself
or if this is simply a matter of state. Since this is nicely cleared up in
the same thought, there doesn't appear to be any reason to retain the
ambiguity in the English.
[Response TBD.]
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